Congratulations to those candidates who passed Paper 2.4 at this sitting. The paper
was seen as fair and reasonable by the marking team and some candidates gained very
high marks. Lack of success seemed to be due to poor preparation or poor time management.
Some members of the marking team reported an increasing number of scripts showing
poor presentation or poor handwriting. Candidates should use black or blue pen, not
pencil, and avoid using red pen, as this colour is used by markers. Make sure the
Candidate Registration Sheet (CRS), at the front of the answer booklet, is
completed correctly. Ten percent of one marker’s scripts had incorrect or
incomplete CRSs. As stated before, the marking process is slowed down considerably
by such errors.
Many discursive answers were too short for the marks on offer, which suggests that
a substantial number of candidates place numerical or technical ability over
conceptual understanding. This was especially evident in Questions 3 and 5,
where good computational answers to 3(a) and 5(a) were frequently accompanied
by very limited discursive answers to 3(b) and 5(c). In future, it is hoped
that more answers are more balanced, as technical and numerical ability goes
hand in hand with conceptual understanding.
Question 1
Part (a) asked candidates to analyse and comment, from a shareholder point of
view, on the working capital management and financial performance of a company
in the media sector. While the analysis and comment on working capital management
was usually acceptable, analysis and comment on financial performance was usually
weaker.
Although the question asked for use of appropriate ratios and financial analysis,
many answers limited themselves to ratio analysis and did not analyse changes in
items in the financial statements provided. Answers that calculated ratios for
only one year lost marks, because they did not analyse financial information or
changes in appropriate ratios over two years (balance sheets) or three years
(profit and loss accounts). A partial analysis of the information given in the
question is likely to lead to less than full marks.
While many answers correctly calculated working capital ratios, relevant ratios
for looking at financial performance from a shareholder point of view gave rise
to many incorrect definitions. Errors were often found in gross profit margin,
net profit margin, and return on capital employed (ROCE). In addition, return on
equity (ROE) was often passed off as ROCE, and errors also occurred in earnings
per share, dividend per share (many candidates used total dividend from the profit
and loss account as if it were dividend per share), interest cover, and balance
sheet gearing.
Discussions of working capital management often gained high marks, with many key
areas and issues being identified. A full discussion of individual areas of
working capital can be found in the suggested answer to this question. Many
answers did not discuss the changes in the company’s liquidity position with
sufficient emphasis, as the cash balance fell from £16m to £1m and the overdraft
increased from £1m to £8m.
Discussions of financial performance from a shareholder point of view were not
as strong, with many answers identifying only some of the key issues. While a
full discussion can be found in the suggested answer to this question, key issues
that could have been analysed and discussed included: profitability; gearing and
financial risk; share price movements; investor ratios such as earnings per share,
dividend per share, dividend cover and price-earnings ratio; financing strategy;
and possible overtrading. Some answers erroneously suggested that reserves could
be used to ‘pay’ a maintained dividend; reserves are not cash and cannot be
‘used’ as if they were.
While answers to Part (a) often gained high marks, answers to Part (b), which
asked for evaluation of a factor’s offer, were more varied in quality. Most
answers included in their analysis the savings in administration costs and bad
debts (since the offer was for non-recourse factoring, the saving in bad debts
would be 100%). The factor’s fee of 0.5% of sales was amended by some answers
to 5%, or even 50%. Changes in financing costs were widely miscalculated.
Candidates would do well to study the suggested answer to this part of Question
1. There were two elements to consider: a reduction in financing cost due to a
reduction in the level of debtors; and an increase in financing cost due to the
factor’s advance. Some answers calculated an overdraft interest rate for use
here, when the question clearly stated that this rate was 4%.
Candidates should clarify the distinction between capital items and costs.
These were often added together, when this addition has no meaning. The amount
of an overdraft, for example, does not need to be added to interest paid and
payable on the overdraft in order to calculate the size of the overdraft.
The factor’s advance was 80% of sales. Many answers incorrectly took this to
be 80% of turnover, rather than 80% of the new level of debtors. Very few
candidates included in their analysis the further reduction in debtor days
in the second year under the factor, which needed to be considered for a more
complete cost–benefit analysis.
In Part (c), candidates were asked to calculate the theoretical ex-rights price
per share, and to discuss the likely effect of the proposed expansion on the
current share price and on the gearing of the company. A large number of
answers calculated the rights issue price, the theoretical ex-rights price, and
the net funds raised by the rights issue, and then stalled. Some answers calculated
the value of the rights but incorrectly called this the theoretical ex-
rights price, even, in some cases, using it to calculate the amount of funds
raised. The question stated that the expansion would earn an after-
tax return of 9%, but candidates were unable to link this statement with an
increase in earnings per share and, via the price-
earnings ratio, with a predicted share price which could be compared with the
theoretical ex-rights price per share. In a similar vein, calculations of post-
expansion gearing usually included the rights issue funds, but omitted the
additional return on the funds raised.
Part (d) asked candidates to apply the dividend growth model to information
provided in the question, and to assess the validity of the company’
s claim of future share price growth of 8%. Many candidates used total
dividend in the dividend growth model and claimed that the answer was a
price per share. A moment’
s thought would have shown that this was impossible. Many candidates did not even
attempt this part of Question 1. This is somewhat surprising, since the dividend
growth model is given in the formulae sheet included with the examination paper.
Some answers wasted time by calculating a dividend growth rate, when the question
clearly stated that the company expected this to be 8%. Please refer to the
suggested answer for the correct approach to this part of Question 1.
Question 2
Part (a) asked candidates to discuss the nature of the financial objectives that
might be set in a not-for-profit organisation. Answers that only discussed non-
financial objectives were therefore unlikely to gain any credit. In fact, many
candidates did not indicate clearly the financial dimensions of the objectives
they were discussing. Better answers tended to focus on value for money (VFM) but
did not need to restrict themselves to this topic alone. In general, candidates
attempting this part of Question 2 did not gain high marks because of a lack of
focus on the requirement, or because of the brevity of their answers.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to discuss the meaning of the term ‘efficient
market hypothesis’, and the implications for a company of being listed on a semi-
strong form efficient stock market. The standard of answers was generally good,
with candidates distinguishing between weak, semi-
strong, and strong form efficiency, although many answers only identified a few
implications for a company if its shares were traded on a market where share
prices fully and fairly reflected all past and public information.
In Part (c), candidates were required to discuss the difficulties that may be
experienced by a small company seeking additional funding for expanding business
operations. Many answers focused on sources of finance for a small company, rather
than on the difficulties faced in raising finance, and lost marks as a result.
There is little point, for example, in discussing ‘being saved by a business
angel’ when being saved is not, in itself, a difficulty.
Question 3
This question was very popular. Part (a) asked candidates to prepare an operating
statement reconciling budgeted profit with actual profit, calculating variances in
as much detail as allowed by the information provided. Many answers gained high
marks. A worrying number of answers identified budgeted profit with budgeted sales,
a mistake which is difficult to explain. Some candidates used marginal costing, but
since the standard cost information provided included fixed production overhead per
unit, absorption costing was in use. Many answers claimed that budgeted sales volume
was not provided and therefore assumed that budgeted sales volume was the same as
actual sales volume. However, since budgeted standard labour hours were given,
standard labour hours per unit could be used to find the budgeted sales volume.
While fixed overhead variances were a common source of confusion, most other
variances were calculated correctly. The format of operating standards was usually
of an acceptable standard.
Part (b) asked for a discussion of how the operating statement could assist managers
in controlling variable costs and fixed production overhead costs. Most candidates
seemed unaware of the budgetary control cycle and how the operating statement
fitted into the control process. Instead they offered answers that sought to
explain how the variances they had calculated might have arisen (poor material,
unskilled labour, new machines, and so on). While candidates are expected to be
able to produce an operating statement, they are also expected to know why
operating statements are produced and how they are used in budgetary control.
Most candidates seemed to be unaware that, in the short term, fixed costs are
uncontrollable, a fact that is not changed by the production of an operating
statement.
Question 4
This was the least popular question in Section B and many candidates demonstrated,
in Part (a), that they did not know how to prepare the production budgets and mater
ial usage budget required by the question. Mistakes were often made in calculating
the required production in unit terms, and answers gained marks thereafter for meth
od rather than for correctness. Some answers occasionally calculated the production
budget in cost terms, by applying a cost per unit to calculated production levels.
Since such attempts invariably ignored the changes to average cost per unit arising
from using a FIFO stock valuation system and overtime rates, they gained little
credit.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to calculate the value of closing stock of finish
ed goods, and the value of cost of sales for the period. There was no point in
calculating the value of closing stock for each month, since only the closing
stock at the end of the last month was needed. Many candidates seemed unaware
that cost of sales is found by adding opening stock to, and subtracting closing
stock from the cost of production. Few answers to this part of the question gained
full marks.
In Part (c), candidates had to discuss how budgets and the budgeting process could
be used to motivate managers, referring to the setting of targets for financial
performance and to participation in the budget-
setting process. This has traditionally been an area of the syllabus that
candidates enjoy, but most answers failed to reach a satisfactory level of marks.
Little credit could be given, for example, to answers discussing the different
types of budget if this discussion was not linked to managerial motivation.
Similarly, answers discussing the different types of standard that could be used
in budget-setting gained few marks if they lacked a focus on how these different standards
were linked to managerial motivation. No matter how well written or knowledgeable
the answer, if it does not answer the question asked, it will gain little credit.
Question 5
This was the most popular question in Section B and many answers gained high marks
in Part (a), which asked for a net present value (NPV) calculation. However, many
answers lost marks in the area of fixed costs, where fixed cost per unit was
consistently multiplied by sales volume to give a total fixed cost for the year,
which was thereby treated as a variable cost. The fixed costs were relevant costs
as they were incremental costs, but incremental does not mean variable, as some
answers stated in their assumptions. Some answers also lost marks by using 25%
reducing balance capital allowances when the question specified that these
allowances were offered on a straight-line basis.
Part (b) asked for a calculation of the internal rate of return (IRR) of a project,
and many answers gained full marks. Where marks were lost, it was usually due to
an incorrect application of the linear interpolation ‘formula’. Some answers
calculated NPV several times, looking for a negative NPV. This is unnecessary,
since the linear interpolation formula is also a linear extrapolation formula.
The project line of NPV versus discount rate is assumed to be a straight line
(hence the ‘linear’ in linear interpolation), and therefore, the calculation of
IRR does not require the location of a third point on a straight line when two
other points are already known. Knowing any two points on a straight line defines
and locates that line. It is not necessary for one of the first two points to
be below the x-axis (ie to have a negative NPV). Some answers said that the IRR could not be
calculated as it was greater than 20% and the discount tables provided only went
up to 20%. Since the IRR can be found by extrapolation, additional tables are not
needed. A minority of answers gained no credit for performing calculations based
on the belief that IRR was the same as ARR (accounting rate of return).
Candidates were asked, in Part (c), to discuss the reasons why NPV was preferred
to other investment appraisal methods. Many answers showed a shallow understanding
of this important investment appraisal method, saying little more than NPV is
preferred because it accommodates the time value of money, uses cash rather
than accounting profit, and looks at the whole life of the project. Weaker
answers also described the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal
methods, rather than focusing on NPV, as required by the question.